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德优网2023陕西省西安市新城区初中英语考试期末八年级上

2023-2024学年陕西省西安市新城区八年级（上）期末英语试卷

试卷总分:120分    命题人:dyczyyyn    考试时长:120分钟

一、听力题(13小题共30分)
1. （本题1分） A.Twice a week.
B.Three times a week.
C.Four times a week.
 
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2. （本题1分） A.On Friday.
B.On Saturday.
C.On Sunday.
 
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3. （本题1分） A.Does his homework.
B.Plays basketball.
C.Plays soccer.
 
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4. （本题1分） A.An actor.
B.A doctor.
C.A reporter.
 
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5. （本题1分） A.Lily.
B.Mary.
C.Shirley.
 
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6. （本题1分） A.A sportow.
B.A talk show.
C.A game show.
 
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7. （本题1分） A.Soup.
B.Bread.
C.Salad.
 
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8. （本题1分） A.A class party.
B.A welcome party.
C.A birthday party.
 
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9. （本题1分） A.Funny.
B.Serious.
C.Outgoing.
 
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10. （本题1分） A.Because he had a bad cold.
B.Because he ate nothing this morning.
C.Because he stayed up to do his homework.
 
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11. （本题4分） （1）Where did Peter see a robot？
A.At school.
B.In a park.
C.On TV.
（2）How will kids study at home in the future？
A.Learn by themselves.
B.Learn with parents.
C.Learn on computers.
 
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12. （本题6分） （1）Who did Ben climb the mountain with？
A.His friend.
B.His father.
C.His mother.
（2）How long did it take Ben to reach the top of the mountain？
A.Two hours.
B.Three hours.
C.Four hours.
（3）What did Amy do yesterday？
A.She looked after her little sister.
B.She did some housework.
C.She studied for the math test.
 
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13. （本题10分）
When What to do
Before the party Call his friends to （1）        them to the party.
Go to the supermarket on （2）        .
Help his mother （3）        for the party.
After the party Do the （4）        .
Clean the （5）        .
Take out the trash（垃圾）.
 
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二、完形填空(2小题共20分)
14. （本题10分） 阅读短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
The Magic Key in the Book Lewis gave his son Toby a book without any pictures.Toby was disappointed.Lewis said， "Dear，there is （1）        magic key in the book." Toby liked everything about magic.He opened the book， （2）        he didn't find the key. "You won't find it like that.You have to read it，" said Lewis.Toby （3）        reading the book，but he stopped the next day.He thought， "It's so boring.There （4）        no magic key.Dad just wants me （5）        more."
   Toby's younger sister began to read the book. （6）        three days，she said， "I have found the magic key!With it，I visited many places and people.They were great!" Hearing this，Toby began to read it again.He （7）        bored at first because there were no pictures in it.But later，he found it （8）        than before and he walked into the world in the story.He visited the wonderful places in the book by （9）       .
   "The book is the key!" he cried.
   From then on，in every new book，Toby could see a magic （10）       .He enjoys reading very much now.
（1）A．a B．an C．the D．/
（2）A．though B．but C．and D．because
（3）A．begin B．begins C．began D．will begin
（4）A．is B．are C．has D．have
（5）A．read B．to read C．reading D．reads
（6）A．In B．Before C．For D．After
（7）A．feel B．feels C．felt D．feeling
（8）A．interesting B．more interesting C．interest D．the most interesting
（9）A．him B．himself C．he D．his
（10）A．book B．books C．key D．keys
 
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15. （本题10分） Paul is from America.He is a 13-year-old boy.He likes （1）        on weekends.There are many TV shows every day.What kind of （2）        does Paul like and what does he think of them？Well，Paul's favorite TV shows are sports news and Animal World.He often watches them （3）        he goes to bed.Paul's favorite （4）        is P.E.at school.He likes playing basketball very much.Paul loves sports news.He thinks it is very exciting because he can see a lot of famous （5）       .Paul （6）        likes Animal World.He thinks the show is very interesting，and he can （7）        a lot about animals from it.Pandas and koalas are Paul's favorite animals.Paul hopes to go to （8）        to see koalas one day.As for Healthy Living，Paul doesn't mind it.He watches it when there isn't sports news or Animal World.But Paul can't （9）        soap operas.He thinks they're （10）       .He never watches them.

（1）A．going swimming B．going shopping C．watching TV D．doing some reading
（2）A．TV shows B．sports C．songs D．news
（3）A．so B．before C．after D．if
（4）A．teacher B．color C．language D．subject
（5）A．players B．runners C．actors D．doctors
（6）A．just B．also C．either D．too
（7）A．learn B．take C．give D．mind
（8）A．China B．England C．America D．Australia
（9）A．send B．mind C．stand D．prepare
（10）A．interesting B．boring C．fun D．cool
 
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三、阅读理解(4小题共20分)
16. （本题4.5分） Alvin finished a questionnaire （调查表）.
Sunshine Hotel Dear Guest，
   Thank you for sharing your hotel experience.
   Name of guest：Alvin Lee
   Phone number：53216987
   Time of stay：from 6：00 p m on October 18th to 11：00 a m on October 22nd
Hotel services please circle：
5—excellent 4—very good
3—good 2—OK 1—poor
Check-in （登记入住） 5 ④ 3 2 1
Staff expertise （员工专业技能） 5 4 ③ 2 1
Food 5 4 ③ 2 1
Timing （时间安排） of services 5 4 3 ② 1
Hotel environment
Lighting ⑤ 4 3 2 1
Music 5 ④ 3 2 1
Cleanliness ⑤ 4 3 2 1
Would you return to our hotel for a stay again？
   Yes.
   What advice will you give？
   Faster housekeeping services and high-speed Internet.
（1）How many nights did Alvin stay in the Sunshine Hotel？        
A．Two.
B．Three.
C．Four.
D．Five.
（2）Which of the following was Alvin the least happy with？        
A．Food.
B．Staff expertise.
C．Timing of services.
D．Check-in experience.
（3）Alvin gave Sunshine Hotel advice on        .
A．housekeeping services and the Internet
B．lighting and housekeeping services
C．cleanliness and the Internet
D．cleanliness and lighting
 
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17. （本题4.5分） Most people around the world agree that pandas are smart and cute animals.But can they draw？Can they do anything special？I believe they can.These days a panda becomes a popular star and helps the zoo where she lives get lots of visitors.
   This female panda called Yang Yang comes from Vienna Zoo，Austria.Now she has learned to use a brush to create her works of art.People like her paintings so much that 100 of them are waiting online for someone to buy at ＄580 each.
   Yang Yang's paintings will probably help the zoo to make ＄58，000.With the money，the zoo will have the chance （机会） to publish （出版） a new picture book about the pandas in the zoo.The plan will certainly come true because Yang Yang enjoys painting and can draw more pictures.
   Two years ago，Yang Yang became a mother of twin pandas.She is a smart mother and learns to draw quickly.Many visitors would like to visit the zoo to see Yang Yang's wonderful painting shows. They make people think of the first attempts （尝试） of a small child.
   You never know，with such an amazing talent，this cute animal may be able to become a great artist!
（1）Which of the following is true？        
A．Yang Yang drew more than 100 pictures.
B．Yang Yang comes from America.
C．Each of Yang Yang's paintings online is about ＄5，800.
D．Yang Yang has a twin sister.
（2）What does the underlined word "They" refer to？        
A．Yang Yang's two kids.
B．Yang Yang's painting shows.
C．The zoo's visitors.
D．Smart and cute pandas.
（3）Where can you probably read this passage？        
A．In a storybook.
B．In a diary.
C．In a newspaper.
D．In a sports magazine.
 
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18. （本题6分） I think that Earth Hour is a really good way to let people know that little things they do can make a big difference to the earth.
   Earth Hour started in Sydney，Australia，in March 2007.Now，cities all around the world join in Earth Hour.During Earth Hour people turn off their lights，televisions and computers to save the earth.
   A lot of energy （能源） is saved around the world during Earth Hour，but people should think more than one hour of energy saving.People should help the earth every hour of every day.Walking to school or the shop saves energy.Using both sides of the paper saves energy.Turning off the tap （水龙头） when you brush your teeth saves energy.When you stop and think about it，there are so many simple things people can do every day to save the earth.
   Being part of Earth Hour connects people around the world for something good.I am going to be part of Earth Hour again next year.I hope you will be，too.
（1）When and where did Earth Hour start？        
A．It started in German，in May 2007.
B．It started in France，in March 2007.
C．It started in Australia，in March 2007.
D．It Started in Australia，in May 2007.
（2）What is Paragraph 3 mainly about？        
A．When Earth Hour began.
B．What people think of Earth Hour.
C．How people can save energy every day.
D．Why people should protect the earth.
（3）Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage？        
A．People only need to save the earth during Earth Hour.
B．People should help the earth every hour of every day.
C．People can write on one side of the paper to save energy.
D．People should turn on the tap when they brush their teeth.
（4）The writer writes this passage to        .
A．ask people to save the earth
B．tell people to save time
C．help people live an easy life
D．make people live happier
 
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19. （本题5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
I want to become a doctor. （1）        I really hope my dream of being an excellent doctor will come true one day.But it is not easy. （2）       
   First，be brave （勇敢的） when meeting difficulties.In the face of difficulties，I hope that I can be a brave person.I hope my first idea is not to give up，but to face them.
   （3）        I'm going to study medicine at a famous university and I will be really hard-working.
   Third，exercise more. （4）        Without good physical condition （身体状况），lots of knowledge reserves （知识储备） will be on paper.So I make weekly plans to exercise.
   （5）        Then I can get closer to my dream.
A．Being a doctor needs a healthy body.
B．I think that being a doctor is one of the most important jobs in the world.
C．I usually read a lot of books about science in my free time.
D．All in all，I will try my best to keep these resolutions.
E．Making plans is a good way，so I make some resolutions.
F．Second，be ready to do sports.
G．Second，be ready to work hard.
 
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四、完成句子(5小题共10分)
20. （本题2分） 上周我收到了母亲的来信。
I         my mother last week.
 
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21. （本题2分） 我们应该学会如何礼貌地拒绝别人的邀请。
We should learn how to         others' invitation politely.
 
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22. （本题2分） 请给我一些关于礼貌行为的建议。
Please give me some         about good manners.
 
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23. （本题2分） 宇航员在进入太空之前必须反复训练和练习。
The astronauts have to train and practice         before they enter space.
 
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24. （本题2分） 如果明天天晴，我将去上一节游泳课。
If it is sunny tomorrow，I will take a        .
 
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五、短文填空(1小题共10分)
25. （本题10分）
think he on do astronaut danger sell one probable be
Today is January 20th，2060.It is confirmed （被确认） today that Mike will be the （1）        visitor to Mars （火星）.The 38-year-old American trader will leave the earth in January 2062，together with six （2）       .Mike will soon start his two-year training for the trip to Mars.It will be an exciting but （3）        trip.It will take （4）        five months to get to Mars，and then he will spend 100 days （5）        the red planet.Mike is of course very excited. "This is my dream I started dreaming of going into the space when I （6）        four，" he says.
   To be able to pay for the expensive ticket for the trip，Mike （7）        his factory.Now Mike almost has nothing but the ticket，but Mike believes he is （8）        the right thing.How will Mike spend his days on Mars？ "Well，if I don't have a job when I get back to the earth，I will spend some time （9）        of a new idea，" he says and laughs."And if I can take a shovel （铁铲），I will （10）        build the first hotel there."
 
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六、任务型阅读(1小题共10分)
26. （本题10分） Answer the following questions.
Chang'an （《长安三万里》） is an animated film （动画电影） that tells the life of the Tang Dynasty，a great time in Chinese history.
Information from DoubanTitle：Chang'an
Directors：Xie Junwei，Zou Jing
Release date：July 8，2023
Genre：Animation/History
Runtime：168 minutes
Language：Chinese
Rating （评分）： （Now，4，190，000 people watched it.And 391，000 people gave their ratings.）
德优题库
Comments （评论）：
Sarah：
Li Bai and Gao Shi were real friends for a long time and they always helped each other.Their friendship made me feel the warmth.I gave five stars!
Jenny：
When I watched it，my daughter recited （背诵） poems.It's really an educational film.Children may get interested in more Chinese poems after watching it.
（1）How long is the film Chang'an？
It's         long
（2）When was the film released？
It was released on        .
（3）In the rating chart，how many people gave a four-star rating to Chang'an on Douban？
There were         people.
（4）What made Sarah feel the warmth？
        made her feel the warmth.
（5）What did Jenny think of the movie？
She thought it was        .
 
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七、补全对话(1小题共5分)
27. （本题5分） A：Kate，（1）       
B：I usually watch TV in my free time.
A：What TV shows do you like？
B：I like sportows and sitcoms.
A：（2）        ？
B：Because they make me happy and relaxed.
A：And which do you like better，sportows or sitcoms？
B：（3）        ，I can learn some great jokes from sitcoms.What about you，Eric？
A：I don't like watching TV.I usually go camping or climb mountains if I have time.
B：（4）       ？
A：I usually do these with my cousin，Paul.We both love outdoor activities.We will climb a mountain next weekend.（5）       ？
B：Yes，I'd love to.Before you go，call me.
 
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八、书面表达(1小题共15分)
28. （本题15分） 亲爱的同学们，紧张忙碌的一个学期即将结束，丰富多彩的寒假就要来临了。怎样安排好寒假生活，过一个充实而又有意义的寒假呢？请根据以下提示，写出你的寒假计划。
寒假计划
1.早睡早起，健康饮食，锻炼身体；
2.坚持读书，发展兴趣，适当放松；
3.勤做家务，关爱他人，服务社区；
4 ……（自主发挥）
要求：（1）参考以上提示内容，并将第四条补充完整；
（2）语句通顺，意思连贯，可适当发挥；
（3）文中不得出现你的任何真实信息 （姓名、校名和地名等）；
（4）词数：70词左右。作文的开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
   The winter holiday is coming.Here are my plans for it.
__________________
   If I can carry out the plans，I will have a colorful and meaningful winter holiday.
 
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gt@dyw.com

2023-02-03

初中英语 | 考试 | 难度:1.36

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平行组卷明细
2023-2024学年陕西省西安市新城区八年级（上）期末英语试卷的细目表
  • 题号
  • 考点
  • 操作
  • 1
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 2
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 3
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 4
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 5
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 6
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 7
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 8
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 9
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 10
  • 听录音选句子，
  • 查看
  • 11
  • 听长对话，
  • 查看
  • 12
  • 听长对话，
  • 查看
  • 13
  • 听短文，
  • 查看
  • 14
  • 兴趣爱好，记叙文，
  • 查看
  • 15
  • 个人情况，记叙文，
  • 查看
  • 16
  • 日常生活，应用文，
  • 查看
  • 17
  • 动物/植物，说明文，
  • 查看
  • 18
  • 环境保护，说明文，
  • 查看
  • 19
  • 计划与愿望，说明文，
  • 查看
  • 20
  • 一般过去时，
  • 查看
  • 21
  • 动词词义辨析，动词短语，
  • 查看
  • 22
  • 不可数名词，
  • 查看
  • 23
  • 副词短语，
  • 查看
  • 24
  • 名词短语，
  • 查看
  • 25
  • 航空航天，记叙文，
  • 查看
  • 26
  • 文化，应用文，
  • 查看
  • 27
  • 喜欢与不喜欢，
  • 查看
  • 28
  • 计划与愿望，说明文，
  • 查看
细目重组明细
2023-2024学年陕西省西安市新城区八年级（上）期末英语试卷的细目表
  • 题号
  • 考点
  • 选题
  • 1
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 2
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 3
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 4
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 5
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 6
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 7
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 8
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 9
  • 听录音选单词/短语，
  • 查看
  • 10
  • 听录音选句子，
  • 查看
  • 11
  • 听长对话，
  • 查看
  • 12
  • 听长对话，
  • 查看
  • 13
  • 听短文，
  • 查看
  • 14
  • 兴趣爱好，记叙文，
  • 查看
  • 15
  • 个人情况，记叙文，
  • 查看
  • 16
  • 日常生活，应用文，
  • 查看
  • 17
  • 动物/植物，说明文，
  • 查看
  • 18
  • 环境保护，说明文，
  • 查看
  • 19
  • 计划与愿望，说明文，
  • 查看
  • 20
  • 一般过去时，
  • 查看
  • 21
  • 动词词义辨析，动词短语，
  • 查看
  • 22
  • 不可数名词，
  • 查看
  • 23
  • 副词短语，
  • 查看
  • 24
  • 名词短语，
  • 查看
  • 25
  • 航空航天，记叙文，
  • 查看
  • 26
  • 文化，应用文，
  • 查看
  • 27
  • 喜欢与不喜欢，
  • 查看
  • 28
  • 计划与愿望，说明文，
  • 查看
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